I waited for more than two weeks to see whethrer you have anything further to say about your denial of what is ‘absolutely’ stated in the Word of God. You said that you will change your view if anything is absolutely stated in “God’s Word” (May 30, 2019).
On June 10, 2019, you refused to answer my question based on what is absolutely stated in Matthew 5:39.
In 2013, you did a similar calim on Romans 10:4. You changed the English word “End” in KJV to ‘Burry” and claimed that was done by using rhetorical style of ‘quick writing English style.’
On this thread, you changed the English word ‘Type” in KJV to “Pattern” on (May 13, 2019). In KJV it is ‘absoltely’ printed as “type.” However, you changed that to ‘pattern.’ KJV states about ‘type’ because in Greek TR, it is TUPOS. You do not accept what is written in the Bible.
On 19 June 2019, you wrote That I have not given scriptural support for what I wrote. I gave you Romans 5:14 and you do not accept that verse, saying it is not according to your understanding. Maybe for you it is not an ‘absolute’ statement!
On the contrary, I told you that you changed the meaning of ‘type’ to ‘pattern.’ Let me tell you once again, Romans 5:14 it is ‘absolutely’ stated that Adam was a type of the One who is to come—which is a Hebraism for the coming Messiah. You may not know what I meant by Hebraism. If that is the case, please ask and I will explain it ‘absolutely.’
On 18 Jun 2019, you wrote, “v13 and v14 were not ignored. v13 did not seem to add to this specific topic we are discussing. v14 is important to the topic and I just missed adding this to my (1) above:” You wrote this, because I asked why you ignored those two verses in your posting of 13 June 2019. Could you exlain, how verse 14 is revelant in this discussion, while verse 13 is not. Are you saying that it is not an ‘absolute’ statement in “God’s Word?” It appears that you are placing yourself as the judge and jury to decide what is relevant and not revelant in “God’s Word.” Do you know what you once wrote about “God’s Word” in an earlier posting? Now you say that you are the one who will decide what God should say and how He should say and you will declare what is ‘absolute’ ot not.
On 18 June 2019, you also wrote, “Yes I am aware of the parenthesis used in KJV from v13 to v17. I have not given the parenthesis any particular importance, or in other words, I have given equal weight to these verses in parenthesis as the other verses without the parenthesis.” Could you explain this? I am interested to know the reason for your rejection of the parenthesis in KJV, and KJV is your accepted Bible translation.
Since, you do not give ‘particular importance’ of the parenthasis in KJV, could you tell me why verse 13 is not relevant, according to yor judgment? If verse 13 has no ‘particular improtance,’ how is verse 14 received its ‘particulat improtance?’ Both verses are part of the same parenthetical portion in KJV.
You wrote on 10 May 2019, “So, it not correct to compare Adam to the Lord Jesus in respect to the virgin nature of the earth and of Mary.” In Romans 5:14, I read that Adam was a type (TUPOS) of “Him who is to come.” You want to change that from a type (as in the original) to ‘pattern.’ I want you to justify this insistance from you to change what was originally given. I do not have to explain what I wrote,because that is what is written in Romans 5:14. It was ‘absolutely’ stated and you are the one who wants an ‘absolute’ statements from the Bible. When such ‘absolute’ statements are given from the bible, you want to change that ‘absolute’ statement with your personal preferences.
You wrote on 30 May 2019, “Adam was indeed made of dust from the earth, but Christ was not made of anything from Mary. So Adam is not a "type" of Christ in that sense. This is my personal (probably flawed) opinion, but I am willinging to change this view if God's Word absolutely says so.” I ask you toread what you wrote and I quoted, especially the first sentence. You wrote, “Christ was not made of anything from Mary.” Is that true? Have you read about the “Seed of the woman?” It was in the first prophetical pronouncement by God and it was directly given to man by God. You say that Jesus was not made of anything from Mary. If that is your teaching, it is contrary to what is written in the Scripture as ‘absolutely’ true to take place. You who try to be an absolute-man is absolutely negating God’s statement regarding the birth of Jesus Christ.
With respect to the above paragraph, I ask you to read what is ‘positively’ written in Luke 1:31. There I read,but you do not, that Mary will conceive in her womb and bear a son. However, you had the audacity to say that Mary did not conceive in her womb. That is exactly what you wrote in 30 May 2019 and I quoted that for your convenience. By doing so, you denied the humanity of Lord Jesus Christ, so do many cults. You must humble yourself before God and confess your sin of joining with people who deny the perfect humanity of Lord Jesus Christ.
Apostle Paul, being inspired by the Holy Spirit, wrote about the humanity of Lord Jesus Christ in his epistles. Let me refer one of them to you and that is in 1 Timothy 2:5 and I read, “the man Christ Jesus,” but you may read it differently. He is the only perfect Man who ever lived on this earth and He is my Lord, my God, my Savior, my Mediator, … I ask you to study the Scripture to learn what God has revealed and not to established your pet-pee-wees.
I wait to read your answers to all my questions, sice you have claimed the judgship over “God’s Word.” Please answer them all. If you make another rhetorical declaration of not having time, that is another way of saying that you are caught in your scheme of exalting yourself over God and His Word.